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Why do Ashkenazi and Sephardi Poskim follow different Rishonim? [closed]

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Why do Ashkenazi and Sephardi Poskim follow different Rishonim? I understand that during the era of the Rishonim natural borders, (Pyrenees, Mediterranean Sea, Black Sea and Caucasus Mountains) limited communication between these communities and the ideas and reasonings of some Rishonim weren't availible to others, but today we all have access to the works from both communities.

In other words why should an Ashkinazi Posek discount the Rambam's rulings and a Sephardi Posek discount the Maharil's?


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